Why should taste be subjective when sight isn't? - Page 3

Want to talk espresso but not sure which forum? If so, this is the right one.
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GB
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#21: Post by GB »

A very interesting thread. It is my understanding that people being taught how to taste wine compare their taste experience against standardized vials of aromas.

Like here: http://www.cheapfunwines.com/archives/w ... et_kit.php

Does such kit exist for coffee tasting? If not maybe something like this is needed and would help?

Geoffrey
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Bluecold
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#22: Post by Bluecold »

Dogshot wrote: As another challenge to the objectivity of taste, I always thought that the tongue can sense 4 basic flavours: sweet, sour, bitter, salt. Apparently "umami" is a 5th taste (proteinaliscious, meaty savouryness), which we did not classify until the popular presence of Eastern cuisine entered our consciousness. (Maybe it's not - all my knowledge of umami comes form wikipedia). How did this escape us for so long if taste is more an objective assessment than a judgment based on some form of comparison and prior knowledge.
It never escaped us. The four flavour thing is a fairytale. People telling you about that japanasians have got 5 flavours are just trying to impress you with their AWSUM knowledge about foreign cultures.
The only thing "umami" is good for is that it's a telltale to spot impressionable idiots.
For example, 'fishy' is a very definite flavour. Fishy isn't sour, bitter, sweet, or salt or even umami. It's just fishy.
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HB
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#23: Post by HB »

Interesting discussion and I'm reminded of the sensory judges' workshop for SCAA barista competitions.

We scored drinks on a scale of 0 to 6.0. Each judge scored their drink independently and it was unusual for them to differ by more than 0.5 point. During training, the leader would demand an explanation for scores markedly outside the norm. In competition scoring, there's a quick "calibration" discussion once the scores are written to assure there isn't something odd. The outlier judges aren't asked to change their scores during this discussion, but the head judge will note why Judge A's scores are different than B, C, and D's, should the competitor ask during the post-competition debriefing.

My point is that good sensory judges can distinguish between their personal preference and a well-explained standard of an exceptional espresso. Not that it's easy to agree on that definition, but evidently it's not impossible.
Dan Kehn

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HB
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#24: Post by HB »

GB wrote:Does such kit exist for coffee tasting?
The "Le Nez du Café" is a kit of coffee-related scents, similar to that for wines.
Dan Kehn

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#25: Post by coffeefrog »

Is this about subjectivity of taste, or is it about the happiness that people derive from what they consume or experience? The quote at the top of the thread was about choice and the assumption/thread-driving-frustration seems to be that properly educated, people should always prefer objectively better products. Will they make them happier? I suspect that the answer is approximately "it depends". I know someone who actively dislikes the Sidamos that I pull on my Elektra, he likes his coffee more bitter, more harsh tasting. He and I are looking for different things in our cups of coffee.

I don't think that it is obvious at all that taste is objective in some absolute sense. There are clearly objectively identifiable parts to the range of taste responses that the majority of the population display(ingesting excessive quantities of the wrong alkaloids is bad, for example, so bitter and sweet are clearly distinguishable by most people), but we are not talking about bad coffee being toxic in a big enough way to kill people, we are talking about the difference between merely drinkable and excellent, which is a different range of responses. I'm not convinced of the obviousness at that level.

The idea that it is possible for someone's taste to be "incorrect... in a very objective sense" leads to what concrete actions exactly? That kind of talk bothers me.
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#26: Post by farmroast »

Industrial foods try to trick all of our senses. I go into a market and see those beautiful looking shipping tomatoes next to rather ugly, imperfect looking heirloom/standard ones. The perfect looking shipping tom. reminds me of a perfect standard variety one from my past. Industry hopes I daydream about that old beauty so hard that I fail to realize that the taste of the new one is more like cardboard. Imitation flavorings work the same way. They hope that some sort of vanillaish taste instantly connects us to memories of real vanilla. As I work with kids learning about agriculture, many of them have never experienced real. They become extremely vulnerable to sensory manipulation. They are encourage to think about a clown when eating a burger a tiger when eating their cereal. Why is so much effort put into designing a kids cereal box and that kids ask to have the box in front of them while eating? Is there anything wrong with industrial sensory manipulation? Hell think how much money we can save! I can then put that money into a chick magnet car to catch Barbie!
PS Terroir is such a great word it's too bad there really isn't an equivalent in english.
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#27: Post by Phaelon56 »

another_jim wrote:
Coffee that has been hand picked and sorted, well prepped, transported fast, and roasted by somebody who cares is better than a collection of branches, stones, unripe and rotten cherries, that are triaged, steamed, roasted, packed, and left to go stale on an assembly line. If you don't think it tastes better, your taste is incorrect in a very objective sense, you are not tasting the reality of the two coffees.
This assumes that the reality of two different sets of people are the same but their realities are based on a host of different experiential factors accumulated over time and also on their perceptions of what really matters.

I believe that some people are truly incapable of tasting a notable and worthwhile (to them) difference unless or until they are trained. But if they don't care then it's a moot point. I had a girlfriend who liked the food at Olive Garden and insisted that she couldn't taste the difference between that and high end Italian food. I'm certain that if she cared enough to "educate her palate" she could know the difference but she didn't care.
Here's the argument in a nutshell:
  • That taste is subjective would come as a very big and very lethal surprise to just about any organism, including us for most of our history, that relies on it to distinguish what will nourish from what will kill.
  • We no longer need taste to keep us alive. So we can harness the same ability to discern the chemical content of what we ingest and put it to some other use, one more playful and interesting.
  • For instance, we could use it to distinguish foods that take skill, effort and creativity from those that merely increase shareholder value.
  • If we do this, taste remains objective. Instead of distinguishing poison from food, it distinguishes quality, i.e., the rarity, skill, effort, etc, that go into foodstuffs, from trash.
It's obvious that taste is a perfectly objective sense, like all the others, albeit out of a job in the modern affluent part of the world. So why are people so misinformed? That's easy to understand too. It's the only way advertisers can persuade people that the crap which merely increases shareholder equity actually tastes good.
This gets back to an assumption that a majority of people either do or should care - and quite often they don't.

The ability to discern and qualitatively assess differences in food/beverage quality - an attribute we might define as a person's "taste" is radically different from the fundamental and inherent physical sense known as "taste". The fact that my physiology and genetic composition equips me - and nearly all other humans - to "to distinguish what will nourish from what will kill" doesn't mean we all have the capability or the inclination to distinguish gradations of quality.

When my 87 year old father comes to dinner and drinks exceptionally good coffee that I grind and brew fresh he always comments on how good it is because he can. But he'll turn around the next day, go to Flo's Diner in Canastota NY - 'Home of the 10 Cent Coffee" (with free refills) and tell me that their coffee is great - because he doesn't care.

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#28: Post by GC7 »

The training of one's palate be it for wine or coffee is one with merit IMHO.

In that vein remember that there are individuals who are color blind due to their genetics and these individuals have to adapt their behavior when driving as an example to know that red is universally on top of the traffic signal and green on the bottom. Normally, the consequences of knowing one color from another may not matter but the example used, driving, forces the issue as one of personal safety and the safety of others.

Also in that vein I recall watching my grandmother over the years change her eating habits such that she started drinking sweet wine in the evening and preferred sweet treats in general much more then she had previously. As we age it turns out that those sweet taste receptors become dominant. Sweets were in fact the only foods she could readily taste any more. We all have genetic variation that explains why some prefer saltier food then others and so on. We can certainly adapt and change our habits to eventually like that baked potato without any salt but that again goes up to the first sentence above about training ones palate. So we all better enjoy our complex layered multi-flavored espressos while we are young enough to discern the difference between it and a Folgers with four sugar packets. :shock: Ultimately though who is to say what's best with regard to a subjective matter where the consequences affect only the individual?

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another_jim (original poster)
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#29: Post by another_jim (original poster) »

Phaelon56 wrote:This gets back to an assumption that a majority of people either do or should care - and quite often they don't.

The ability to discern and qualitatively assess differences in food/beverage quality - an attribute we might define as a person's "taste" is radically different from the fundamental and inherent physical sense known as "taste".
You agree with me, but you don't know it because you are mesmerized by pop culture subjectivism. Again, apply your argument to sight and you'll see what I mean:

-- You are not born with the ability to avoid onrushing cars. You are born with the sensory capacity to see the car, the motor capacity to avoid it, and the judgment that this is a good thing to do. Based on this, you learn to avoid onrushing cars
-- Your argument is that while our ability to sense tastes and to act on them is similar, the judgment to avoid onrushing cars is fundamentally different from the judgment to avoid Lavazza.
-- If judgments are entirely arbitrary and not based on nature, a la Kant, then this is false. We are just as free to be self destructive as we are to be tasteless.
-- If judgments are based on nature, a la Aristotle, Darwin or just about everyone who hasn't taken a philosophy course, then avoiding cars is a lot more important than avoiding Lavazza, but avoiding Lavazza is still based on something real, not something subjective, the difference between it and well prepared coffees.
-- So in the end you are saying that one should accord with nature in important things like avoiding oncoming cars, but can do as one pleases for less important things like avoiding industrial coffee.
-- This is what I said: we have limited time and resources, so we have to pick and chose. But on those things we do pick, we can definitely acquire the capacity to taste skill, hard work and creativity in foodstuffs, and we can accept that this type of objectivity is the right standard for what tastes good.
-- If you do this, your taste will no longer be subjective. So having purely subjective taste, i.e. taste judgments that do not respond in some orderly fashion to changes in what is being tasted, is a choice; just like wearing a blindfold is a choice.
Jim Schulman

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#30: Post by Psyd »

another_jim wrote: Everyone who has met up with other espresso lovers, and walked around, say at the SCAA, trying shots, will quickly see how objective (or at least common) taste is.
...amongst coffee lovers who are so in to it that they'll go to an SCAA Convention. While there is something to what you say, I'm not sure that this is the litmus test you get to use to prove it! :lol:

Taste is subjective, as it is subject to the sour, sweet, salty, savory, sour population and location of sensitivities on each individual tongue, and the experiences that we've had growing up. I used to love canteloupe, and missed it sorely while I was in Europe for four years as a kid. When I returned to my Aunt's in Florida, she had them growing in her garden, and allowed me to eat as much as I wanted. The taste of canteloupe was something that I abhorred for the next coupla decades. I gradually was able to stomach it, and now even sort of like it, but my tasted changed dramatically. One day I thought that the taste of canteloupe was the bomb. By the week's end, the smell of it would nauseate me.
Pretty subjective.
While every taste is simply a chemical change on the taste bud, everyone has different taste buds. And then, the entire thing goes to the brain for interpretation, and everyone has different wiring up there that is remarkably dependent on what they tasted on a regular basis their whole life.
If taste were objective, we would be able to say to someone that says that they don't like coffee, "Of course you do, you're just to ignorant to know that coffee tastes good!" And, always be right, instead of just occasionally. (We all know *someone* that said that they didn't like coffee, and then tasted one of *our* pulls, and now drinks coffee regularly when the come to our house...)
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