Blind taste tests comparing high end grinders - Page 6

[rmongiovi]

It seems to me that once you start asking questions like sweet, acidic, berry, chocolaty, etc. you're firmly in the subjective realm because you're relying on how each person's taste buds react and how educated their palate is in identifying (or even knowing) what the tastes you're asking about are. You can't differentiate the effect of the grinder from the person's ability to taste and describe what they taste.

I don't see how you get anything beyond "can the person reliably distinguish which grinder produced which cup" and remain objective. Determining if the grinders are different or equivalent is objective. One grinder being "preferable" to the other in any aspect is subjective.

[lucasd]

rmongiovi if you cannot distinguish grinders due to psychology reason only (your brain knows and denies) than there should be no problem failing blind taste. Usually you use it to prove there is difference. But we also can prove difference in grinders just by particle analysis. So we know they're different but not necessarily objective data correlates with subjective taste.