another_jim wrote:..... but the concept had been proved, and the race was on for a mass brewing machine that was both fast and tasty.
Poor factory workers were not the target audience, but rather the crowds of more affluent people at the shiny new railroad stations, arcades, and Haussmann boulevards
Thanks for the historical back drop Jim. So after 1901, coffee retailing quickly became a much more viable commercial venture. Once you go commercial then there is the need to control costs. In a survival of the fittest kind of way, assuming all equally tasty, the venture that has the lowest costs makes the most money and can expand the fastest.
Given that it was only the well heeled that could afford the stuff in the beginning, then the costs associated with producing the drink must have been high. I suppose that competition between machine makers would have helped to drive down costs, as would increasing the production and supply of coffee. However this downward pressure on retail costs would be slow to appear. A much more instant upward pressure on price would be a cut in the supply of coffee beans due to bad harvests/adverse weather. So from this perspective, at least in the beginning, the supply of coffee would be the biggest determinant of retail price. Things like labour, rent and rates etc would presumably be fairly constant.
If demand for coffee outstripped supply, then the price would rise. The question is: did demand for coffee outstrip the speed at which new plantations could be conceived. Probably, sometimes it did and sometimes it did n't.
So coming back to my original "theory". Was cost reduction the determining factor behind dose setting? That is they started from the point of finest grind, smallest quantity of coffee and maximum tamp pressure and worked back from there until they achieved a taste that customers liked?
And should we do likewise?